HAVE ANY QUESTIONS?  +91 9908125620 or 9542868686. ramsudheersias@gmail.com

Top

Preliminary Polity Previous Question Paper

Paper – 2016

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha, lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a Sate is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


3. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the ode given below.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


4. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(A) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(B) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(C) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total members present and voting


5. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Paper – 2015

1.The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined it its

(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Seventh Schedule


2. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of the particular state.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


4. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(A) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(B) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(C) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(D) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha


5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


6. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(A) A simple majority of members present and voting
(B) Three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(C) Two-thirds majority of the Houses
(D) Absolute majority of the Houses


7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


9. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) The Supreme Court of India


10. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code give below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


11. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(A) Preamble of the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of States Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Fundamental Duties


12. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(A) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(B) Determine the boundaries between States
(C) Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(D) Protect the interests of all the border states


Paper – 2014

1. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2.A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2



3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction



4. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Law Comission



5. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(A) The Committee on Public Accounts
(B) The Committee on Estimates
(C) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) The Committee on Petitions



6. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
strong>

(A) 22nd March (or 21st March)
(B) 15th May (or 16th May)
(C) 31st March (or 30th March)
(D) 21st April (or 20th April)


7. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
strong>

(A) Katha Upanishad
(B) Chandogya Upanishad
(C) Aitareya Upanishad
(D) Mundaka Upanishad



8. Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Assembly.
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


9. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
strong>

(A) Preamble of the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule


10. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection
strong>

(A) Second Schedule
(B) Fifth Schedule
(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Tenth Schedule


11. Which of the following is/are the function/ functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committee.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


12. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given of the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Paper – 2013

1. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

(A) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(B) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Fundamental Right and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) None of the above


2. According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties


3. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.
(C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
(D) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.


4. Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. Speak in Lok Sabha
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only


5. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of the majority of States
(C) With the consent of the States concerned
(D) With the consent of any State


6. Consider the following statements:
The Parliament Committee on Public Accounts
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3



7. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


10. With reference to ‘National Legal Services Authority’,
Consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


11. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


12. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following

(A) To provide self-governance
(B) To recognize traditional rights
(C) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(D) To free tribal people from exploitation


13. Which of the following bodies does not/ do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


14. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


15. Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


Paper – 2012

1. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of the State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India uniform civil code.
2. Organizing Village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


2. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


3. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(A) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(B) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(C) To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(D) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.


4. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) None


5. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/ She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/ She needs not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None


6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission.
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


8. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4


9. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


10. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


11. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


12. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, constructed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provisions of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


13. With reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provision of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


14. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(A) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(B) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more all India Services
(C) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(D) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners


15. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliamentary
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecast and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3, 4 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


16. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3, 4 and 5 only
(C) 1, 2 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


17. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares National emergency/Financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministers are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who violated the law while managing public finance.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Paper – 2011

1. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15 Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


2. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(A) To vote in public elections.
(B) To develop the scientific temper.
(C) To safeguard the Public property.
(D) To abide by the Constitution and respect its details.


3. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


4. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Finance Minister


5. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

(A) Contingency Fund of India
(B) Public Account
(C) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Deposits and Advances Fund


6. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(A) The Budget is modified and presented again
(B) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(C) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(D) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers


7. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


8. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(B) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(C) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(D) None of the statements (A), (B) and (C) given above is correct in the context


9. Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


Paper – 2010

1. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Extent of executive power of State
(D) Conduct of business of the Government of India


2. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


3. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament

(A) The President of India
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Union Finance Minister


4. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?

(A) Department of Revenue
(B) Department of Economic Affairs
(C) Department of Financial Services
(D) Department of Expenditure


5. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact.
1. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest)
2. If he seeks such an advice
3. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2


6. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court.
(B) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(C) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(D) None of the statements given above are correct


7. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

(A) District Planning Committees
(B) State Finance Commission
(C) Finance Ministry of that State
(D) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State


8. In the context of governance, consider the following statements:
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows.
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions.
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measure to control the fiscal deficit in India?

 

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only


Paper – 2009

1. With reference to Union Government, consider the following:
1. The Ministers Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministers is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


2. With reference to Union Government, consider the following:
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


3. With reference to Union Government, consider the following:
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


5. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


6. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) Neither1 nor 2


7. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within

(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year


8. In India, first Municipal Corporation was setup in which one among the following?

(A) Calcutta
(B) Madras
(C) Bombay
(D) Delhi


9. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?

(A) Prime Minister’s Office
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Ministry of Power
(D) Ministry of Science and Technology


10. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) Minister of Water Resources
(C) Minister of Environment and Forests
(D) Minister of Science and Technology


11. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of the total number of members of the House of the People?

(A) 90th
(B) 91st
(C) 92nd
(D) 93rd


Paper – 2008

1. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

 

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Who among the following have held the office of Vice- President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only


3. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?

(A) Kangra
(B) Ladakh
(C) Kachchh
(D) Bhilwara


4. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5


5. Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V R Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V R Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian Judicial System
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


6. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the English Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?

(A) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(B) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(C) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(D) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act


7. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?

(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 24


8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
A. Nagender Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A N Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R K Tridevi 3. Chief Justice of India
D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India

(A) A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
(B) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(C) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
(D) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3


9. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?

(A) Third
(B) Fifth
(C) Seventh
(D) Ninth


Paper – 2007

1. Which of the following is the chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?

(A) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(B) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana


2. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V P Singh
2. R Venkataraman
3. Y B Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


3. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reasoning (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.


4. Who was the Speaker of First Lok Sabha ?

(A) Hukam Singh
(B) G V Mavalankar
(C) K M Munshi
(D) U N Dhebar


5. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareily constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3


6. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a women can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


9. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


10. Which of the Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15% of the total numbers of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?

(A) 91st
(B) 93rd
(C) 95th
(D) 97th


11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) T S Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(B) K C Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(C) A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(D) R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India


12. Consider the following statements:
1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


Paper – 2006

1. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) State Reorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(B) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(C) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(D) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State


2. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only


3. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


4. With reference to India Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same from of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


5. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reasoning (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.


6. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a Judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


7. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?

(A) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(B) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(C) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions
(D) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government


8. Which one of the following subjects is under Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(A) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields
(B) Agriculture
(C) Fisheries
(D) Public Health


9. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

(A) University Grants Commission
(B) Natural Human Rights Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) Central Vigilance Commission


Paper – 2005

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 only


2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts
2. There are 390 Articles in Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3


3. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitution Amendment.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?

(A) 2 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


4. Consider the following statements:
1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above s/are correct?

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 only


5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


6. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:

(A) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(B) The Constitution of the National Justice Commission
(C) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001.
(D) The demarcation of new boundaries between States


Paper – 2004

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru, MA Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(C) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
(D) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.


2. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law within the territory of India.
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State

(A) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
(B) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
(C) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
(D) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2


3. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


5. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(A) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law.
(B) No money shall be withdrawn from Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.
(C) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rate of taxes which are already under operation.
(D) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.


6. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
(B) In the case of no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditionsof admissibility have been laid down in the Rules.
(C) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
(D) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.


7. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the

(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Either House of Parliament
(C) Joint Sitting of Parlaiment
(D) Rajya Sabha alone


8. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Department Ministry of Government of India
1. Department of Women and Child Development- Ministry of Human Resource Development
2. Department of Official Language – Ministry of Water Resources
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply – Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None


9. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

(A) KVK Sundaram
(B) GS Dhillon
(C) Baliram Bhagat
(D) Hukum Singh


10. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


11. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislature and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4


12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of Inida?

(A) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(B) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(C) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(D) It allocates seats in the Council of States


13. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only


14. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?

(A) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(B) Any serving Judge of High Court
(C) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(D) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court


15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?

(A) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament
(C) Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament
(D) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament


Paper – 2003

1. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?

(A) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(B) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(C) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(D) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council


2. Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Item in the Indian Constitution)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations
D. India as a Union of States with greater Powers to the Union
List II (Country from which it was derived)
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Ireland
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

(A) A – 5 B – 4 C – 1 D – 2
(B) A – 3 B – 5 C – 2 D – 1
(C) A – 5 B – 4 C – 2 D – 1
(D) A – 3 B – 5 C – 1 D – 2


3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth


4. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

(A) Article 121
(B) Article 122
(C) Article 123
(D) Article 124


5. Consider the following statements:
1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


6. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated wih Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. Set up by the Government of India in the various ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3


7. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(B) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(C) There is no constitutional bar for nominated member to be appointed as a union minister
(D) All nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections.


8. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?

(A) Article 142
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145


9. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?

(A) Ordinary Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Finance Bill
(D) Constitution and Amendment Bill


10. Consider the following statements:
In the electoral college for President Election in India.
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly = State Population/ Number of Elected MLAs of the State

2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament = Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs /Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5,000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) Only 3


11. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislature Power rests with

(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament
(D) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Current Affairs


12. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Orissa


13. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by

(A) First Amendment
(B) Eighth Amendment
(C) Ninth Amendment
(D) Forty Second Amendment


14. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

(A) 6th and 22nd
(B) 13th and 38th
(C) 7th and 31st
(D) 11th and 42nd


15. Which one of the Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘ It shall be duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?

(A) Article 215
(B) Article 275
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 355


16. Consider the following statements:
The functions of Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. to allocate between the States the share of proceeds of taxes
3. to consider application for grants-in-aid from States
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) Only 1
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4


17. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and allocated by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2


18. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

(A) Deputy Prime Minister
(B) Former President
(C) Government of State with in his State
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha


Paper – 2002

1. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?

(A) Indian Council Act, 1861
(B) Government of India Act, 1885
(C) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(D) Indian Councils Act, 1909


2. The members of Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India are

(A) Nominated by the British Parliament
(B) Nominated by the Governor General
(C) Elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(D) Elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League


3. Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India)
A. Charter Act, 1813
B. Regulating Act
C. Act of 1858
D. Pitt’s India Act
List II (Provisions)
1. Set up Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company’s affairs in India.
2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
3. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the British Government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company.

(A) A – 2 B – 4 C – 3 D – 1
(B) A – 1 B – 3 C – 4 D – 2
(C) A – 2 B – 3 C – 4 D – 1
(D) A – 1 B – 4 C – 3 D – 2


4. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are

(A) Article 16 to Article 20
(B) Article 15 to Article 19
(C) Article 14 to Article 18
(D) Article 13 to Article 17


5. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish

(A) Political Democracy
(B) Social Democracy
(C) Gandhian Democracy
(D) Social and Economic Democracy


6. Match List I (Articles of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Articles of Indian Constitution)
A. Article 16(2)
B. Article 29(2)
C. Article 30(1)
D. Article 31(1)
List II (Provisions)
1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law.
2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste
3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
4. No citizen shall be denied admission into educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them

(A) A – 2 B – 4 C – 3 D – 1
(B) A – 3 B – 1 C – 2 D – 4
(C) A – 2 B – 1 C – 3 D – 4
(D) A – 3 B – 4 C – 2 D – 1


7. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international Peace and security?

(A) 51
(B) 48A
(C) 43A
(D) 41


8. Which one of the following rights was described by B R Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies


9. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Planning Commission is accountable to the Parliament
(B) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of the Parliament is not in session
(C) The minimum age prescribed for appointment, as Judge of Supreme Court is 40years
(D) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States.


10. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the

(A) President of India
(B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Ministry of Transport


11. The term of the Lok Sabha

(A) Cannot be extended under any circumstance
(B) Cannot be extended by six months at a time
(C) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(D) Can be extended by two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency


12. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the

(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State


13. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?

(A) 39th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 44th


14. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?

(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Public Accounts Committee


15. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a Judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4


Paper – 2001

1. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of Constitution must be amended?

(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fifth


2. The Supreme Court of India tends advice to the President on a matter of law or fact

(A) On its own initiative
(B) Only if he seeks such advice
(C) Only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights
(D) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country


3. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?

(A) Through Parliamentary Committees
(B) Through Consultative Committees of various ministers
(C) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(D) By compelling the executive to issue writs


4. Match List I (Articles of Indian Constitution) with List II (Content) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Articles of Indian Constitution)
A. Article 54
B. Article 75
C. Article 155
D. Article 164
List II (Provisions)
1. Election of President of India
2. Appointment of Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
3. Appointment of Governor of State
4. Appointment of Chief Minister and Council of Minister of a State
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies

(A) A – 1 B – 2 C – 3 D – 4
(B) A – 1 B – 2 C – 4 D – 5
(C) A – 2 B – 1 C – 3 D – 5
(D) A – 2 B – 1 C – 4 D – 3


5. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts of India:
1. There are 18 High Courts in the Country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 4 only


6. Match List I (Amendments to the Constitution) with List II (Content) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Amendments to the Constitution)
A. The Constitution (69th Amendment) Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (75th Amendment) Act, 2000
C. The Constitution (80th Amendment) Act, 2000
D. The Constitution (83rd Amendment) Act, 2000
List II (Provisions)
1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels
4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
5. Accorded the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi

(A) A – 5 B – 1 C – 4 D – 2
(B) A – 1 B – 5 C – 3 D – 4
(C) A – 5 B – 1 C – 3 D – 4
(D) A – 1 B – 5 C – 4 D – 2


7. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A National level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election Commission
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


8. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:
1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians Minorities.
2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4


9. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility of instruction in mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

(A) Article 349
(B) Article 350
(C) Article 350 A
(D) Article 351


Paper – 2000

1. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935 ?

(A) Diarchy of the Centre as well as in the provinces
(B) A bicameral legislature
(C) Provincial autonomy
(D) An All- India Federation


2. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(B) Diu is an Island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(C) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonies rule till 1954


3. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This is known as

(A) Decorum
(B) Crossing the floor
(C) Interpretation
(D) Yielding the floor


4. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

(A) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or not
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days.
(D) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.


5. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements is / are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4


6. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the

(A) Generation of gainful employment for the unemployment and the under-employment men and women in the rural area
(B) Generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the learn agriculture season
(C) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the Country
(D) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination


7. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties

(A) With the consent of all the States
(B) With the consent of the majority of States
(C) With the consent of the States concerned
(D) With the consent of any States


8. The Standing Committee of State Finance Ministers recommended in January 2000 uniform rates across the state in respect of

(A) Value Added Tax
(B) Sales Tax
(C) Stamp duty and registration
(D) Agriculture income Tax


9. The primary function of Finance Commission in India is to

(A) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(B) Prepare the annual budget
(C) Advise the President on financial matters
(D) Allocate funds to various ministers of the State and Union Governments


10. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is

(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh


11. Consider the following functionaries:
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
The correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is

(A) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(B) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(C) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(D) 3, 4, 1 and 2


Paper – 1999

1. The most short-lived of all Britain’s constitutional experiments in India was the

(A) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(B) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(C) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(D) Government of India Act 1919


2. The Constitution of India recognizes

(A) Only religious minorities
(B) Only linguistic minorities
(C) Religious and linguistic minorities
(D) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities


3. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 alone
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2


4. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not such provision?

(A) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others
(B) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(C) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(D) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability


5. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. It powers are only recommendatory in nature
4. It is mandatory to appoint a women as a member of the Commission
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3


User registration

Reset password